PART 2 – MULTIPLE-CHOICE

This part tests candidates' detailed understanding of a text, including the opinions and attitudes expressed in it.

Candidates need to read the text closely in order to distinguish between apparently similar viewpoints, outcomes and reasons. The task may also contain questions focusing on the meaning of particular words and phrases in the text, and on reference words such as pronouns, etc.

The multiple-choice questions appear after the text. They are presented in the same order as the information in the text so that candidates can follow the development of the text as they work through the questions. The final question may require candidates to interpret an aspect of the whole text, e.g. the writer's purpose, attitude or opinion.

Candidates will need to read each question very carefully, as well as the four options, all of which may at first appear to be likely answers. The questions can be answered correctly only by referring closely to the text.

Candidates should select one option for each question and mark it in some way, e.g. by circling the letter A, B, C or D on the question paper. Once they are satisfied that they have made the appropriate selections, they should transfer their answers to the answer sheet.

PART 3 – GAPPED TEXT

This part tests candidates' understanding of how texts are structured and their ability to follow text development.

The task requires candidates to select from a number of options the correct extract to fit in each of six or seven gaps in a text. There are two alternative tasks: one using sentences as the options, the other using full paragraphs. There is only one correct answer for each gap.

The task consists of a gapped text followed by the extracts from the text and one further extract which does not fit in any of the gaps. Candidates need to read the gapped text first in order to gain an overall idea of the structure and the meaning of the text.

They should check the example (0) in or after the first paragraph and read the extract for it (always H or I). Then they should decide which extracts fit the other gaps, writing the appropriate letter in each gap. They should remember that each letter may only be used once and that there is one extract that they will not need to use. When they have made their selection and checked each choice carefully, they should transfer their answers to the answer sheet.

PART 4 – MULTIPLE MATCHING

This part tests candidates' ability to locate specific information in a text or a group of texts.

The task consists of a series of prompts, followed by a divided long text or series of short texts. Candidates scan the text in order to decide which part of the text each prompt matches. They should read the example first and then write their answers on the question paper. Unlike Parts 1 and 3, the options may be used more than once. Sometimes there will be two or three ‘matches' for one prompt. This will be indicated with separate boxes on the same line in the question paper.

Once they have completed the task and checked any answers that they are doubtful about, candidates should transfer their answers to the answer sheet.

Writing 〈1小時30分鐘〉

PART 1 – COMPULSORY TASK

This part tests the candidates' ability to write a transactional letter, in response to a request for action or to initiate action.

Task type and focus

The letter may be formal or informal. The range of functions in this letter may include requesting and giving information, explaining, apologising, as well as making complaints, corrections, or suggestions. The usual conventions of letter writing, specifically opening salutation, paragraphing and closing phrasing, are required but it is not necessary to include postal addresses. Candidates who do include addresses will not be penalised.

Task format

Candidates need to base their letter on input material of up to 250 words. This input is made up of varied combinations of text and notes, and may be supported by illustrations or diagrams. The texts may include advertisements, extracts from letters, emails, postcards, diaries or short articles.Widely used abbreviations, such as N.B., e.g., etc., may also appear as part of the input. It is very important that candidates cover all the essential points of the input in their answer so that the target reader is fully informed. Candidates should be aware that the overall aim of the task is to achieve a positive effecton the target reader. A list of questions or statements in simple sentences is not enough; organisation and cohesion, clear layout, appropriate register, control and accuracy of language are all-important features of task achievement.

Some evidence of range of language is also required, which means building on key words from the input rather than lifting whole segments. Part 1 tasks often offer the candidates the opportunity to add a piece of information, or make a suggestion or request of their own, and this enables them to demonstrate their range of language.

PART 2 – QUESTIONS 2–4

This part consists of four questions from which candidates must choose one. One of the four questions offers two options based on the list of set books.

Task type and focus

The different task types are intended to provide frameworks for the candidates so that they can put together and develop their ideas on a topic with a purpose for writing and a target reader in mind.

For example:

A COMPOSITION is usually written for a teacher, perhaps as a follow-up to a class activity, and would probably include some opinions and suggestions on the subject.

AN ARTICLE is usually written for an English language magazine or newsletter. The reader is assumed to have similar interests to the writer. The main purpose is to interest and engage the reader, so there should be some opinion or comment. Candidates may include some description and anecdote.

A REPORT is usually written for a superior (a boss or a teacher) or a peer group (club members, colleagues). Candidates will be expected to give some factual information and make some suggestions or recommendations of their own. A report should be clearly organised and may include headings.

A LETTER OF APPLICATION is usually written to an individual or an organisation. The purpose is always clear (to get the job, the scholarship, etc.), and all information and expressions of interest are directed to that end.

AN INFORMAL LETTER is written for a known reader, e.g. a pen friend. The aim is to interest the reader, share an experience or explain feelings and personal opinions.

A SHORT STORY is usually written for an English language magazine or anthology. The writer might be writing for a fee or in the hope of winning a prize, but the immediate purpose is to engage the interest of the reader.

PART 2 – QUESTIONS 5(A) AND (B)

This consists of a choice of two tasks based on the list of set books, as specified in the Examination Regulations issued every year .

備註：第二部分考題出處有固定的範圍，請參考下列讀本：

2006
*Jane Austen, Pride and Prejudice (Penguin Readers or any edition)
*Anthony Hope, The Prisoner of Zenda (Penguin Readers or any edition)
*George Orwell, 1984 (Penguin Readers or any edition)
A. J. Cronin, The Citadel (Penguin Readers or any edition)
Arthur Conan Doyle, Three Adventures of Sherlock Holmes (Penguin Readers) ... ..... (also available through the Cambridge ESOL website: www .CambridgeESOL.org/fce)

Task type and focus

The tasks require one of the types of writing given above, i.e. article, letter, composition or report. This option is intended to encourage extended reading as a basis for the enrichment of language study, and a variety of simplified and original texts are included in the list of prescribed titles. Each book normally remains on the list for two to three years.

Candidates who base their answer on another book not on the list will receive Band 0. The questions are designed to be general enough to be applicable to any of the books. The target reader is defined as someone who has probably not read the books. This encourages adequate reference to the text which the candidate has read; a plot summary is not, however, a substitute for the task.

In Question 5, the examiners are looking for evidence that candidates have read and appreciated a set book and are able to provide evidence of this in the form of description and discussion. Assessment is based, as for the other Part 2 tasks, on control of language in the given context. It is obviously necessary to downgrade candidates who attempt the set book questions without preparation.

PART 1 – MULTIPLE-CHOICE CLOZE

In this part there is an emphasis on vocabulary.

Part 1 consists of a text in which there are 15 gaps (plus one gap as an example). Each gap represents a missing word or phrase. The text is followed by 15 sets of four words or phrases (A, B, C, D), each set corresponding to a gap. Candidates have to choose which one of the four words or phrases in the set fills the gap correctly.

Different types of words are tested in this part. Sometimes it is necessary to choose between words with a similar meaning, e.g. choosing ‘ leaking ' rather than ‘ spilling ', ‘ pouring ', ‘ flowing ' to fill the gap in ‘ The roof of our tent was ….. ' . At other times it will be necessary not simply to know the meaning but also to know which word is correct because of the preposition, adverb or verb form which follows, e.g. choosing ‘ interested ' rather than ‘ keen ', ‘ enthusiastic ', ‘ eager ' to fill the gap in ‘ You may be ….. in applying for this job '.

This part of the paper also tests collocations, such as ‘ to pay attention to ', and linking phrases such as ‘ even if '. Phrasal verbs are also tested here. They may be tested in three different ways; the whole of the phrasal verb, e.g. ‘ keep on ', just the verb itself, e.g. ‘ keep ', or just the preposition or adverb which follows the verb, e.g. ‘ on '.

PART 2 – OPEN CLOZE

The focus of this part is grammar and vocabulary.

Part 2 also consists of a text in which there are 15 gaps (plus one gap as an example). However, in this part, as there are no sets of words from which to choose the answers, candidates have to think of a word which will fill the gap correctly. The answer will always be a single word, never a phrase. In some cases, there may be more than one possible answer and this is allowed for in the mark scheme. The absence or misuse of capital letters and punctuation is ignored, although spelling, as in all parts of the test,must be correct.

PART 3 – KEY WORD TRANSFORMATIONS

The focus of this part is grammar and vocabulary.

Part 3 consists of ten key word transformations (plus an example). Each question contains three parts: a lead-in sentence, a key word, and a second sentence of which only the beginning and end are given. Candidates have to fill the gap in the second sentence so that the completed sentence is similar in meaning to the lead-in sentence. The answer must be between two and five words, one of which must be the key word. The key word must not be changed in any way.

PART 4 – ERROR CORRECTION

The focus of this part is grammar.

Part 4 consists of a text which resembles something that a student at this level might have written. The text consists of seventeen lines, most of which contain an error of the sort typically made by learners at FCE level, e.g. incorrect verb forms, wrong pronouns, prepositions and articles.

Candidates must write on their answer sheet the word which is wrong. However, a certain number of lines do not contain an error and in these cases candidates must put a tick ( _ ) on their answer sheet. The absence or misuse of capital letters is ignored, although spelling must be correct. The first two lines of the text are examples: one of the lines will be correct; the other will contain an error. There are fifteen lines which are tested.

PART 5 – WORD FORMATION

In this part there is an emphasis on vocabulary.

Part 5 consists of a text in which there are ten gaps plus one gapped line as an example. There is one gap per line. At the end of each line, and separated from the text, there is a word in capital letters. Candidates have to produce a new word based on this word which can be correctly inserted in the gap in the line.

PART 2 – NOTE TAKING, BLANK FILLING

OR SENTENCE COMPLETION

This part tests candidates' ability to listen for specific words or phrases and produce written answers in response to the sentence or note prompts.

The ten questions in this part of the paper may take the form of notes with gaps in them, table completion or incomplete sentences. The questions follow the order of the information in the conversation. Candidates do not need to write a full sentence as most answers will be one to three words in length.

The word, number or phrase heard on the recording will make sense in the notes or sentences on the question paper. Minor spelling errors are not penalised, but the candidate's intention must be clear. Candidates will not be asked to spell words which are above FCE level. However, spelling must be correct where a word has been spelled out letter by letter, for example where the key is a proper name.

PART 3 – MULTIPLE MATCHING

In Part 3, the focus is on the skill of listening for gist. Candidates need to match an option to the correct speaker.

Candidates listen to five short pieces with different speakers, which are related in some way. For example, they may all be speaking about aspects of the same subject, such as travel, or about similar experiences or objects, such as journeys or vehicles. Alternatively, the link may be functional, such as a series of different speakers asking for information, or apologising.

PART 4 – SELECTION FROM 2 OR 3 POSSIBLE ANSWERS

In Part 4, there are a number of possible task formats. This part tests candidates' ability to listen for the gist or detail of a longer text.

The seven questions in this part of the paper may take several forms; some tasks have two alternatives for each question and others have three.

Two alternatives:

• Is the view expressed by any of the speakers? – Yes/No

• Does the statement conform with what is in the text? – True/False

Three alternatives:

• Three-option multiple-choice – A, B or C.

• Matching who said what. In this task, candidates must select which of two speakers expresses an opinion/feeling, etc., or whether both agree – X, Y or Both.

• Matching which thing or person does or says something, for example in a discussion comparing three schools, ‘which school offers what?', or in a discussion about three job applicants, ‘which person has which skills?', – A, B or C.

PART 2 – LONG TURN

This part tests the candidates' ability to produce an extended piece of discourse.

In this part of the test, candidates are given the opportunity to speak for one minute without interruption. Each candidate is asked to compare and contrast two colour photographs, commenting on the pictures and giving some personal reaction to them. They are not required to describe the photographs in detail. Candidates can show their ability to organise their thoughts and ideas, and express themselves coherently in appropriate language. Candidates should pay attention while their partner is speaking, as they are asked to comment briefly (for about 20 seconds) after their partner has spoken. Candidates should be made aware, however, that they should not speak duringtheir partner's long turn. Candidates will always be asked to ‘compare and contrast' two photographs. They will also be asked to say something which relates directly to the focus of the photographs.

PART 3 – COLLABORATIVE TASK

This part tests the candidates' ability to engage in a discussion and to work towards a negotiated outcome of the task set.

The candidates are given oral instructions and provided with a visual stimulus (one or several photographs/artwork/computer graphics, etc.) to form the basis for a task which they carry out together. Candidates are expected to work towards a negotiated completion of the task and are assessed on their speaking skills while doing this; they are not penalised if they do not complete the task.

The task gives candidates the opportunity to show their own range of language and their ability to invite the opinions and ideas of their partner. There is no right or wrong answer to the task.

PART 4 – DISCUSSION

This part tests the candidates' ability to engage in a discussion based on the topic of the collaborative task in Part 3.

In this part of the test, the interlocutor directs the interaction by asking questions which encourage the candidates to broaden and discuss further the topics introduced in Part 3.

This part of the test gives candidates an opportunity to show that they are capable of discussing certain issues in more depth than in the previous parts of the test.